tions? Shall we say that when the Mayas colonized the countries at the south of Asia, then the banks of the Euphrates, then the valley of the Nile, and later Asia Minor, it was in ages so remote that the Aryans, regarded as a primitive people living at the dawn of history, had not yet multiplied to such numbers as to make it imperative for them to abandon their native country in search of new homes? Shall we say that the Maya colonies much antedated the migrations of the Aryan tribes, that, abandoning their bactrian homes only about three thousand years before the Christian era,[1] went south and invaded the north of India; whilst others, going west, crossed over to Europe and spread over that continent? This would explain the use of Maya instead of Sanscrit words for the names of the various parts of the "Sri-Santara;" show the Maya to be more ancient than Sanscrit; and also account for the grammatical forms common to both the Maya and the Greek, that the ulterior admixture of Aryan words to the latter was unable to alter.
We must premise the explanation of the names of the parts of the "Sri-Santara " by stating that the letters D, F, G, J, Q, and V are not used in the Maya language.[2]
From remote ages the Brahmins taught that in the beginning existed the Infinite. This they called Aditi, "that which is above all things." It is precisely the meaning of the Maya words A titich—composed of Ah, masculine article, the "strong," the "powerful; " and titich, "that which is above all things."[3] A-titich or A-diti would then be the "powerful superior to all things," the "Infinite. " In this
