The degree in which the Old Testament is binding upon Christians.
How does the Article decide the question?
That "the Law given from God by Moses, as touching Ceremonies and Rites, does not bind Christian men," and that "the Civil precepts thereof ought not of necessity to be received in any commonwealth;" but that "no Christian man whatsoever is free from the obedience of the Commandments which are called Moral."
Prove that the law of Moses does not bind Christians in regard to ceremonies and rites.
St. Paul blames Christians for thinking it necessary to observe the "holy days, new moons, and sabbaths" of the law of Moses, and the law of circumcision. See Gal. iii. 24, 25, compared with iv. 9, 10; v. 1, 2; Col. ii. 16, 17. But, on the other hand, many of the Levitical ordinances were typical of sacraments and rites in the Christian Church.
What do you mean by the "Civil precepts" of the Law of Moses?
The precepts which concern men as members of society under earthly rulers.
Prove that they are not binding upon Christians.
Rom. xiii. 1. Because under the New Testament we are required to be "subject to the higher powers" of the country in which we live, which is inconsistent with observing the law of Moses.
What is meant by "the moral commandments?"
