Why was it necessary to say that the cup of the Lord is not to be denied to them?
Because when the Reformation began they were not allowed to partake of it.
How did this happen?
It arose from superstitious veneration for the sacred elements, as supposing some portion of the consecrated wine might be spilled from the chalice, in administering it to them?
Why should not the cup be denied to lay-people?
Because "by Christ's ordinance and commandment, both parts of the Sacrament ought to be ministered to all Christian men alike."
How does that appear?
Because our Lord appointed the cup to be partaken of in the same manner as the bread; and St. Paul, in writing to the Corinthians, makes no difference between the two, although writing to the whole Church.
Give a further reason.
Because our Lord appointed each of the elements by consecration to communicate a particular blessing, and therefore those who deny the cup to lay-people deprive them, so far as lies in their power, of a portion of the benefit of the Sacrament.
Article XXXI.
What is the subject of the thirty-first Article?
"The one Oblation of Christ finished upon the Cross."
