Assyria." No doubt it may be said that this son was not called "Immanuel," so that the prophecy was not fulfilled in him. But the same argument might be urged against the application to our Lord; for He also was not called "Immanuel," but received the old national name of "Joshua," "Jeshua," or "Jesus." Reviewing all the circumstances of the prophecy, I think we may say, without exaggeration, first, that there are no grounds for seeing in it any reference to a Miraculous Conception; secondly, that, when isolated, it might easily be misinterpreted so as to convey such a reference.[1]
Even if no such prophecy had existed, the language and preconceptions of the earliest Christians and their converts would almost necessarily have introduced a belief in the Miraculous Conception. The language of Philo—who represents not a mere individual eccentricity but the current phraseology of the Alexandrine school of thought, and whose influence may be traced in almost every page
- ↑ You remember that the two accounts of the Miraculous Conception differ in respect of the "annunciation"; which St. Matthew describes as being made to Joseph, St. Luke as being made to Mary. It is interesting to note how these two variations correspond to two variations in the ancient prophecy.
In the LXX the name is to be given to the child, not by the mother, but by the future husband: "The virgin shall be with child and bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name Immanuel". In the Hebrew, the "virgin," or "maiden," is herself to name the child: "A virgin shall ... bring forth and shall call, &c." Adopting the former version, a narrator would infer that the announcement of the birth was to be made to Joseph, as the first Gospel does: "She shall bring forth a child and thou (Joseph) shalt call his name Jesus." Adopting the latter version, and changing the third into the second person for the purpose of an "annunciation," the narrator would infer that since the name was to be given by the mother, the announcement was made to the mother, as the third Gospel does: "Thou shalt be with child, and shalt bring forth a son, and shalt call his name Jesus."
Note also that afterwards, when St. Matthew actually quotes the whole prophecy with the name "Immanuel" (i. 23), he alters the verb into the third person plural; "That it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Behold the virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a child, and they shall call his name Immanuel." The reason is obvious. It would not be true to say that Mary called her son "Immanuel;" it would only be possible to suggest that men in general ("they"), looking on the Child as the token of God's presence among them, might bestow on him some such title (not name) as "God with us." Consequently St. Matthew here alters "thou" into "they."
