jurisdiction in this realm of England," what do you understand?
That he has no rightful authority of any kind in that kingdom, whether ecclesiastical or temporal. What is this second doctrine taught in this [English] Article?
That the kings of England[1] have " authority to rule all conditions of persons both ecclesiastical and temporal, and to restrain with the civil sword the stubborn and evil doers."
How have they this authority?
Because it pertains to all chief rulers to rule their subjects of every class.
Show that this is the case.
1 St. Pet. ii. 13; Rom. xiii. 1. St. Peter and St. Paul both declare it.
In what way have they power to exercise this authority?
By requiring all of every class to observe the laws.
Does this give them power in ecclesiastical matters?
In England it does, because the laws of the Church are the laws of the land; but not in the United States.
Was this power ever " given to godly princes in Holy Scripture by God Himself?"
Yes; David, Solomon, Hezekiah, and Josiah,
- ↑ In the United States the civil authority—the president and governors of states, chosen to exercise such power, by the people, but only in things temporal.
